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Thread: Why did Jesus say "Don't Touch Me" after His resurrection?

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    Why did Jesus say "Don't Touch Me" after His resurrection?

    John 20:17 Jesus saith unto her, Touch me not; for I am not yet ascended to my Father: but go to my brethren, and say unto them, I ascend unto my Father, and your Father; and to my God, and your God.

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    Senior Member Colonel's Avatar
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    I think the nkjv says cling to

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    I.to fasten one's self to, adhere to, cling to
    A.
    to touch

    B.
    of carnal intercourse with a women or cohabitation

    C.
    of levitical practice of having no fellowship with heathen practices. Things not to be touched appear to be both women and certain kinds of food, so celibacy and abstinence of certain kinds of food and drink are recommended.

    D.
    to touch, assail anyone

    Other passages that use the word...



    And Jesus put forth his hand, and touched G680 him, saying, I will; be thou clean. And immediately his leprosy was cleansed.


    Matthew 8:15
    And he touched G680 her hand, and the fever left her: and she arose, and ministered unto them.


    Matthew 9:20
    And, behold, a woman, which was diseased with an issue of blood twelve years, came behind him, and touched G680 the hem of his garment:


    Matthew 9:21
    For she said within herself, If I may G680 but touch G680 his garment, I shall be whole.


    Matthew 9:29
    Then touched he G680 their eyes, saying, According to your faith be it unto you.

    I don't see any indication that intensity of the word 'touch' or cling' is relevant...

    The why is found in what followed...

    "Jesus G2424 saith G3004 unto her, G846 Touch G680 me G3450 not; G3361 for G1063 I am G305 G0 not yet G3768 ascended G305 to G4314 my G3450 Father: .."

    Based on the process of the Tabernacle that Jesus had to ascend and enter a literal 'Heavenly Holy of Holies' once for all.

    The death on the cross was the lamb in the outer court...the 3 days was the Scape Goat.... and the High Priest alone had to enter the Most Holy Place and place the blood and God the Father had to ACCEPT it and His acceptance was verified by His Glory..interesting because I just realized Shekinah Glory in the OT is also the feminine noun as in the Holy Spirit....so the gift of the Holy Spirit was God literally releasing His Glory or His Spirit on mankind fulfilling the Tabernacle process..verifying He accepted Jesus shed blood as the final absolute sacrifice...

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    We know Jesus returned and told Thomas to touch Him so He had ascended and descended at that point..

    There were 10 days between His ascension and Pentecost. How do we know this? Jesus arose from the dead on the Feast of Firstfruits (See: Q: #117 for more on this). A "wave offering" was made on this day (Lev 23:9-10). The Feast of Weeks, also known as Pentecost (from the Greek word "Pentekoste" meaning fiftieth) began 50 days after the wave offering (Lev 23:15-16)(Deut 16:9-10). Jesus was on the Earth for 40 days before His ascension (Acts 1:3). Therefore, 50-40= 10 days. http://jesusalive.cc/ques121.htm

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    Senior Member Colonel's Avatar
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    Still doesn't answer the why. Why did it matter ?

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    Quote Originally Posted by Colonel View Post
    Still doesn't answer the why. Why did it matter ?
    The High Priest, once 'cleansed' had to not be touched before entering the Most Holy Place...

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    Senior Member Colonel's Avatar
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    That's an answer from the symbolism of the old covenant but what reality does it symbolize ? Did he only say that so he could act in parallell with the old covenant picture ?

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    Quote Originally Posted by Colonel View Post
    That's an answer from the symbolism of the old covenant but what reality does it symbolize ? Did he only say that so he could act in parallell with the old covenant picture ?
    Human contact would make UNCLEAN...just as it did in the OT...

    Do you have a deeper explanation of 'UNCLEAN'?

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    Senior Member Colonel's Avatar
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    It's an ok answer but I don't really understand why it would make him unclean. An other theory from the carm days was that it would be dangerous to her in some way, that his body wasn't in presentable form until he had returned from the Father again. I suppose that leaves about the same number of questions...

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    Quote Originally Posted by Colonel View Post
    It's an ok answer but I don't really understand why it would make him unclean. An other theory from the carm days was that it would be dangerous to her in some way, that his body wasn't in presentable form until he had returned from the Father again. I suppose that leaves about the same number of questions...
    The latter could make sense but I don't see any scripture to support it at all...

    Why would the touching of the High Priest make HIM unclean?

    Sanctification seems to be in play...he was sanctified at that point....

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