The Bible seems to indicate that man is less than 10,000 years old. Not the Earth.
Scriptural support for an "old earth"
Isaiah 45:18 For thus saith the Lord that created the heavens; God himself that formed the earth and made it; he hath established it, he created it not in vain, he formed it to be inhabited: I am the Lord; and there is none else.
This also is a basis for some for a pre-adamite race since it was formed to be inhabited and then we find it without form and void then he creates Adam and Eve during the re-creation.
(Emphasis mine in the above)
"God wrote two books - the Bible and nature". That's a new one to me. I know the Bible is a book? As for creation, we know that "since the creation of the world His invisible attributes, His eternal power and divine nature, have been clearly seen, being understood through what has been made" so I guess metaphorically it could be. However what we read from it (nature, creation, whatever we call it) has to line up with the written "book", not the other way around. This is because the current world has been corrupted by sin but the word of God isn't.
Added later: Are you suggesting then that God wrote two books and got both wrong???
Last edited by FunFromOz; 07-12-2020 at 12:33 AM. Reason: Added last paragraph
Exactly Jew and Greek. Independence "Day" (which you've recently had) lasts from its start in Boston till it's end in Midway, a period of 32 hours. Similarly New Year's Day lasts 48 hours. And our Birthday is the Anniversary of the Day of our Birth, but we know that, it's context (which is important Biblicly even if it isn't in the Bible).
You said here (Scriptural support for an "old earth")
- And in Isaiah states that he formed the earth to be in habitable. (I guess you meant inhabited)
- So there is a gap between verse one and verse two where all of this was destroyed.
- .. it's obvious he's not speaking about him but about Lucifer/Satan. He talks about him walking in the garden of Eden and every precious stone being his covering.
- This obviously would've had to been before Adam and Eve were created and before he fell."
So the question would be "How strong would the Scriptural support be for each of those four individual statement?
This is almost a repeat question, but I'd like clarification
Genesis 1 NASB says In the beginning God created the heavens and the earth. The earth was formless and void, and darkness was over the surface of the deep, and the Spirit of God was moving over the surface of the waters. Then God said, "Let there be light"; and there was light. God saw that the light was good; and God separated the light from the darkness. God called the light day, and the darkness He called night. And there was evening and there was morning, one day.
and Isaiah 45:18 NASB says For thus says the LORD, who created the heavens (He is the God who formed the earth and made it, He established it and did not create it a waste place, but formed it to be inhabited), "I am the LORD, and there is none else.
How do we Scripturally get out of those six verses that "there is a gap between verse one and verse two where all of this was destroyed"?
Of course not. I'm suggesting that there's a way to reconcile the apparent contradiction between the two, like faith and works, law and grace, blessings and piety, and all of the other theological tensions found in Scripture. Maybe the speed of light isn't a constant like we assume. Maybe fuego is right and the earth is very old. Maybe the expansion of the universe altered out perception of distance, time, and space. Or maybe there's something else that none of us geniuses ever considered. Bottom line is this is a mystery, and it's not something we should be dogmatic about.