Thread: Healing

Hi! One of my New Year's resolutions is to spend more time here in fellowship. I am very sorry I have been so distracted.

In my daily reading and meditation a question arose. I know we have discussed healing many times in depth. But when this question arose I could not think of a single answer.

What SCRIPTURE do people use to defend the idea that God sometimes wills us to be sick? If sickness and disease are always equated with sin, rebellion or nature isn't it wisdom to recognize it is never HIS will, only consequence?

Welcome back Quest!

Originally Posted by victoryword

John 9 and the man born blind

I'm gonna deal with this one just because I like the solution the Spirit showed me if a person won't except the explanation. This can actually be used with Job too.

There is no punctuation in the Greek, so if you move a couple of punctuations it reads totally different.

John 9
1 And as Jesus passed by, he saw a man which was blind from his birth.

2 And his disciples asked him, saying, Master, who did sin, this man, or his parents, that he was born blind?

3 Jesus answered, Neither hath this man sinned, nor his parents: but that the works of God should be made manifest in him.

4 I must work the works of him that sent me, while it is day: the night cometh, when no man can work.

In Jesus' answer in the third verse, the punctuation is such that it implies that the man was born blind on purpose so that the works of God could be done in Him, so that he could be healed and glorify God. But there should be a period after "Jesus answered, Neither hath this man sinned, nor his parents" instead of a colon. Jesus answered the question, the man's sin or his parents sin wasn't the cause of this sickness, period. Now Jesus makes a statement separate from that which is a different thought not related to his answer. In other words, it's not because of the sin of his parents or of the man. But now I must do the work of God while it is day. So there should now be a comma after "but that the works of God should be made manifest in him" and connected to "I must work the works of him that sent me, while it is day: the night cometh, when no man can work." So here is how it should read:

"Jesus answered, Neither hath this man sinned, nor his parents. But that the works of God should be made manifest in him, I must work the works of him that sent me, while it is day: the night cometh, when no man can work."

So if a person doesn't accept that, "You're changing the Bible!" or that sort of thing, then I just say, "Ok. Let's say that's how it is, he was born that way so God could heal him and be glorified. The fact is though if that's the reason he was born that way, he's assured of his healing. So this can't be a reason a person is sick if they don't get healed. So if you are saying this is your situation, or any other person's situation, then they are guaranteed their healing. So I'd be shouting with joy whoever you're applying this to because they are assured and guaranteed of their healing."

This can also be applied to Job if they don't believe/accept explanations. What was the END of Job? He was healed and received twice as much as he had before. So if you consider yourself a Job, then you should be shouting too because you are assured of your healing. Both of these stories are actually guarantees of healing if you look at them correctly.

1 Corinthians 11:30 For this cause many are weak and sickly among you, and many sleep.

Revelation 2:21-22 Even though I have given her time to repent of her immorality, she is unwilling.

22Behold, I will cast her onto a bed of sickness, and those who commit adultery with her will suffer great tribulation unless they repent of her deeds.

It saddens me much when people talk about sickness or disease as if it is a suffering gift. There is simple NO Biblical precedence for that. As noted, even the passages used all resulted in healing IN THIS LIFE.