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Thread: Which law ?

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    Which law ?

    Romans 7:1 Or do you not know, brethren (for I speak to those who know the law), that the law has dominion over a man as long as he lives?
    2 For the woman who has a husband is bound by the law to her husband as long as he lives. But if the husband dies, she is released from the law of her husband.
    3 So then if, while her husband lives, she marries another man, she will be called an adulteress; but if her husband dies, she is free from that law, so that she is no adulteress, though she has married another man.
    4 Therefore, my brethren, you also have become dead to the law through the body of Christ, that you may be married to another—to Him who was raised from the dead, that we should bear fruit to God.

    In verse 4 he is obviously talking about the law given to Moses but which law is he talking about in verses 1-3 ?

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    Senior Member Cardinal TT's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by Colonel View Post
    Romans 7:1 Or do you not know, brethren (for I speak to those who know the law), that the law has dominion over a man as long as he lives?

    In verse 4 he is obviously talking about the law given to Moses but which law is he talking about in verses 1-3 ?
    In v1 he says.... . (for I speak to those who know the law)

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    Quote Originally Posted by Cardinal TT View Post
    In v1 he says.... . (for I speak to those who know the law)
    Jesus says the same as Romans 7:1-3 :

    Mark 10:12 And if a woman divorces her husband and marries another, she commits adultery."

    But where does the law of Moses state that a woman could not divorce her husband under any circumstances ?

    50 AD Roman law permitted women to divorce.

    50 AD Jewish law (Halakha) permitted a wife to sue in a Rabbinical court to initiate a divorce.

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    Quote Originally Posted by Colonel View Post
    Jesus says the same as Romans 7:1-3 :

    Mark 10:12 And if a woman divorces her husband and marries another, she commits adultery."

    But where does the law of Moses state that a woman could not divorce her husband under any circumstances ?

    50 AD Roman law permitted women to divorce.

    50 AD Jewish law (Halakha) permitted a wife to sue in a Rabbinical court to initiate a divorce.

    What are you trying to understand in these passages?

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    Quote Originally Posted by Cardinal TT View Post
    What are you trying to understand in these passages?
    Exactly what he is saying. Another possibility is that he is referring to "the law of Jesus". Which is how some interpret the following verses :

    1 John 1:25 But he who looks into the perfect law of liberty and continues in it, and is not a forgetful hearer but a doer of the work, this one will be blessed in what he does.

    1 John 2:12 So speak and so do as those who will be judged by the law of liberty.

    Which cannot refer to the law of Moses, that would make the rendition diametrically opposite to how Paul renders it in Romans 7 :

    Romans 7:5 For when we were in the flesh, the sinful passions which were aroused by the law were at work in our members to bear fruit to death.
    6 But now we have been delivered from the law, having died to what we were held by, so that we should serve in the newness of the Spirit and not in the oldness of the letter.

    Another possibility is that Paul is referring to "the law of the conscience" but that doesn't make any sense.

    The point is that there are many "laws" apart from "the law of Moses".

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    Senior Member Cardinal TT's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by Colonel View Post
    Romans 7:1 Or do you not know, brethren (for I speak to those who know the law)...
    Why would Paul say 'I speak to those who know the law' if he was using another law and then goes and explains the Mosiac law

    Everything is one context

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    Quote Originally Posted by Cardinal TT View Post
    Why would Paul say 'I speak to those who know the law' if he was using another law and then goes and explains the Mosiac law

    Everything is one context
    Please attempt to discuss the details contained in the thread.

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    Romans 7:3 So then if, while her husband lives, she marries another man, she will be called an adulteress...

    I thought about the possibility that Paul is addressing remarriage rather than divorce and that remarriage was impossible for women under the law of Moses as long as the husband was still alive. The law of Moses does not forbid that :

    Deut 24:1 When a man takes a wife and marries her, and it happens that she finds no favor in his eyes because he has found some uncleanness in her, and he writes her a certificate of divorce, puts it in her hand, and sends her out of his house
    2 when she has departed from his house, and goes and becomes another man's wife,
    3 if the latter husband detests her and writes her a certificate of divorce, puts it in her hand, and sends her out of his house, or if the latter husband dies who took her as his wife,
    4 then her former husband who divorced her must not take her back to be his wife

    Here the woman is divorced, remarries and her first husband is still alive. The remarriage is not the problem, the problem is when her first husband decides to take her back again. This law was probably there to prevent premeditated wife swapping.

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    According to the above the Mosaic law says she can remarry
    Last edited by Cardinal TT; 02-09-2020 at 09:08 AM.

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    Quote Originally Posted by Cardinal TT View Post
    According to the above the Mosaic law says she can remarry
    And Paul says she can not according to the law that he is talking about.

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