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Senior Member
Originally Posted by
Colonel
And Paul says she can not according to the law that he is talking about.
You are conflating the issue
Paul is addressing the believers new marriage to Christ with the death of the old spouse the law and the freedom that comes
Some analogies used as truth are specific to the intent of the writer and you cannot use them to make other points
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Senior Member
Originally Posted by
Cardinal TT
You are conflating the issue
Paul is addressing the believers new marriage to Christ with the death of the old spouse the law and the freedom that comes
Some analogies used as truth are specific to the intent of the writer and you cannot use them to make other points
I'm merely pointing out the fact that Paul's description of the law on marriage doesn't fit the Mosaic laws on marriage.
There are two possible views on this :
* Paul is making a mistake
* Paul isn't referring to the Mosaic law, at least not in the most literal sense
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Senior Member
In the New Covenant the nearest relative doesn't have to marry the remaining wife whose husband has died, neither is it compulsory for a man to marry a woman if he got her pregnant.
So these laws no longer apply
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Senior Member
Originally Posted by
Cardinal TT
In the New Covenant the nearest relative doesn't have to marry the remaining wife whose husband has died, neither is it compulsory for a man to marry a woman if he got her pregnant.
So these laws no longer apply
Well that's the conclusion, that we have been released from the law as it is according to the letter so that we may serve according to the law of the Spirit instead (2 Cor 3). But that is the result of our being released from the law, not the law itself. The law itself is what he's discussing in verses 1-3 and the details lead me to question what law he is talking about. As a brilliant Pharisee Paul ought to know that Deut 24 says something different than what he says in those verses.
Should one automatically assume that he is talking about the literal law of Moses even when the details don't match up with that notion ? I don't think so.
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Senior Member
Originally Posted by
Colonel
And Paul says she can not according to the law that he is talking about.
Maybe the 500 + laws that the pharisees came up with when they expounded on the law of Moses??
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Senior Member
Originally Posted by
Ezekiel 33
Maybe the 500 + laws that the pharisees came up with when they expounded on the law of Moses??
He may be referring to contemporary Jewish law on marriage which may have involved restrictions added to the law of Moses. The Pharisees that Jesus talked to about this matter seem liberally minded but it could be that they added restrictions specifically in the case of women.
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Super Moderator
Originally Posted by
Colonel
I'm merely pointing out the fact that Paul's description of the law on marriage doesn't fit the Mosaic laws on marriage.
There are two possible views on this :
* Paul is making a mistake
* Paul isn't referring to the Mosaic law, at least not in the most literal sense
Interesting...Jesus said in Matthew 19 that if a man divorces his wife for any reason other than infidelity HE was an adultery if he remarried.
Did the law of Moses give room for divorce for any reason? Jesus seemed to be saying that only for adultery should it happen ...is the key in WHY one divorces that makes one an adulterer if they remarry?
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Senior Member
Originally Posted by
Quest
Interesting...Jesus said in Matthew 19 that if a man divorces his wife for any reason other than infidelity HE was an adultery if he remarried.
Did the law of Moses give room for divorce for any reason? Jesus seemed to be saying that only for adultery should it happen ...is the key in WHY one divorces that makes one an adulterer if they remarry?
Romans 7:1-3 seems more in line with what could be called "the law of Jesus" than with the actual law of Moses.
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