Thread: Acts 13:33 Interpretation - Today I have begotten You

NIV: "We tell you the good news: What God promised our ancestors, he has fulfilled for us, their children, by raising up Jesus. As it is written in the second Psalm:

"'You are my son;
today I have become your father.'

NKJV: And we declare to you glad tidings—that promise which was made to the fathers. God has fulfilled this for us their children, in that He has raised up Jesus. As it is also written in the second Psalm:

'You are My Son,
Today I have begotten You.'

I have heard various takes on what the meaning of this verse. What is yours?

Thanks GIMJ. From my casual checking, several commentators feel compelled to insist that it refers to Jesus INCARNATION.
I wonder if there is some discomfort with them allowing exploration of the resurrection aspect, as though it seems uncertain and possibly heretical to them.

Originally Posted by GodismyJudge

This day have I begotten Thee...


Psalm 2:7 is referred to three times in the New Testament, and every single time, read in context, it is used only in reference to His Resurrection...

Acts 13:33
God hath fulfilled the same unto us their children, in that He hath raised up Jesus again; as it is also written in the second psalm, Thou art my Son, this day have I begotten Thee.

Hebrews 1:4-6
(4) Being made so much better than the angels, as he hath by inheritance obtained a more excellent name than they.
(5) For unto which of the angels said he at any time, Thou art my Son, this day have I begotten thee? And again, I will be to him a Father, and he shall be to me a Son?
(6) And again, when he bringeth in the firstbegotten into the world, he saith, And let all the angels of God worship him.

Hebrews 5:5
So also Christ glorified not Himself to be made an High Priest; but He that said unto Him, Thou art My Son, to day have I begotten Thee.

Acts 13:33 seems to refer to his resurrection though the next verse is more specific about that. It can be interpreted as God raising up Jesus to be Messiah rather than resurrecting him. The others could be more general.

There is an other verse that suggests that he (re)gained sonship with his resurrection :

Romans 1:4 and declared to be the Son of God with power according to the Spirit of holiness, by the resurrection from the dead.

That is more specific and therefore clearer than the three quoted.

Originally Posted by GodismyJudge

Quick reply before I have to go...

After verse 34, Verse 35 also confirms it applies to His resurrection...

35 refers back to 34 by way of "therefore". 34 starts with "and" and isn't necessarily connected to verse 33. 34 introduces and discusses a different OT quote than 33 discusses.

Romans 1:4 and declared to be the Son of God with power according to the Spirit of holiness, by the resurrection from the dead.

That is totally clear, the two sentence parts are connected in terms of cause-effect by the term "by".

What does it mean ? Notice that it says "to be the Son of God with power". Which reminds me of the following verse :

2 For 13:4 For though He was crucified in weakness, yet He lives by the power of God. For we also are weak in Him, but we shall live with Him by the power of God toward you.

He resurrected as something more than he was during his three year ministry. He is no longer capable of being tempted by sin, for instance.

If I didn't believe it I would so I just can't.