Originally Posted by
fuego
Not saying I agree or disagree, but think I understand what they're trying to say with the statement. I assume they're trying to say that sin was forgiven at the cross, so all are forgiven, and people in hell are forgiven, but they never accepted the forgiveness.
But you could give the context of the statement and what they were saying rather than just isolating the controversial statement without any context.
That probably is what they are trying to say but while it seems like it makes sense, it does not fit with what the Bible teaches:
Matthew 6:14-15
14 For if ye forgive men their trespasses, your heavenly Father will also forgive you:
15 But if ye forgive not men their trespasses, neither will your Father forgive your trespasses.
Matthew 18:31
31 So when his fellowservants saw what was done, they were very sorry, and came and told unto their lord all that was done.
32 Then his lord, after that he had called him, said unto him, O thou wicked servant, I forgave thee all that debt, because thou desiredst me:
33 Shouldest not thou also have had compassion on thy fellowservant, even as I had pity on thee?
34 And his lord was wroth, and delivered him to the tormentors, till he should pay all that was due unto him.
35 So likewise shall my heavenly Father do also unto you, if ye from your hearts forgive not every one his brother their trespasses.
Can't find anywhere in the New Testament where there was a change on this principle after the redemptive work of Christ.