What is FT's point anyway ? That Adam became truly alive by turning to sin ?
This I say therefore, and testify in the Lord, that ye henceforth walk not as other Gentiles walk, in the vanity (futility) of their mind, having the understanding darkened...
(Ephesians 4:17-18)
Blessed is the man that walketh not in the counsel of the ungodly...
(Psalm 1)
This I say therefore, and testify in the Lord, that ye henceforth walk not as other Gentiles walk, in the vanity (futility) of their mind, having the understanding darkened...
(Ephesians 4:17-18)
Blessed is the man that walketh not in the counsel of the ungodly...
(Psalm 1)
No, you gotta pay attention... Adam was alive, committed sin, and then because separated from God which is what death is.That Adam became truly alive by turning to sin ?
So, Adam became dead by turning to sin.
Early Copeland had some pretty good stuff that was Bible based... now he is into the pope.Pretty sure it was Copeland, who FT now disavows.
So, your saying that Adam sinned... and did not die?
It is scriptural that Adam died... that cannot be disputed.
He was alive and he became dead. He was in fellowship with God, and became out of fellowship with God.
This is basic, simple understanding of how mankind got into the condition it is in... separated from God and in need of a Savior.
He's saying he wasn't 'born again' in reverse so to speak. My post above:
Well, technically Adam wasn't really 'born again' from life to death because we never refer to death as a 'birth' (born). We always speak of going from life to death as death, dying, etc, not 'born'. Having said that, I 'get' what FT is saying. Is just not really accurate in how we use the English language, or in any body else language for that matter. As I said we never refer to one dying as a 'birth/born'.
I get what you are saying when you say Adam was the first 'born again' man going from life to death, but in the way we use our language, we never use 'born' or 'birth' in regards to death.